Time Allowed: Three Hours       Maximum Marks: 300

Candidates should attempt ALL questions strictly in accordance with the instructions given under each question. The number of marks carried by each question is indicated at the end of the question.

Q. 1 Answer the following (in about 250 words for each answer): 20 × 2 = 40

(a) “Disputes between the- riparian states on sharing of river waters in post- Independence India are becoming increasingly complex.” Objectively analyse the major disputes in this connection, with special reference to the Southern States.

Important Points for Answer:

Reason for Disputes  

Main Disputes

Analyses      

Complexity

Answer: India is divided into 28 states and 7 union territories for administrative purpose. This divisions do not resemble geographical boundaries. Therefore, it happens that a river originates in one state, flows through one or more other states and then its mouth is in yet another state. So, disputes arise regarding water sharing of such inter – state rivers. In northern India, there are 16 river basins and in Southern India, there are 14 river basins.

We can take cases of Krishna – Godavari river basin and Cauveri Dispute for our analysis.

One reason for such disputes is that sharing agreements are based on old datas and parameters. With time, water quantity and requirements have undergone a drastic change. So, it gives rise to dispute.

Again, in South India, main cultivation is paddy. So, every state requires more water, being the need of crop.

Cauvery dispute has its own Tribunal but no proper conclusion has yet arrived at. Dispute remains between Karnataka and Tamil Nadu.

Between Kerala and Tamil Nadu, there is a dispute over Mullaperiyar dam height. It is a historic earthern dam built by British government in agreement with Tranvancore state.

On river Krishna, dispute remains between Andhra Pradesh and Karnataka states. Godavari gives rise to a dispute between Maharashtra and Andhra Pradesh.

All these disputes, now have not remained only water – based. They have their socio – economic effects. Political movements have taken their pace on the basis of these disputes.

Earlier society was mainly rural and agricultural, now urbanisation and industrialisation have also increased demand of water, blowing air to the fire.

(b) Critically examine the differing estimates for (i) poverty figures, and (ii) GDP growth data for April – June 2010, that have been in the news recently. In your view, what estimates are more reflective of the ground reality, and why?

Important Points for Answer:

Poverty Measurement

GDP Data

Different figures       

Analysis

Answer: In India (and also in the world) there are different criteria for measuring poverty.

We have four different figures for poverty in India, based on different criteria. According to Planning Commission, poverty is 28 per cent. N. C. Saxena Committee reported poverty at about 50 per cent. Recently Suresh Tendulkar Committee reported poverty at 37.2 per cent but in the estimates of the National Commission for Enterprises in the Unorganised Sector (NCEUS), poverty may be around 80 per cent in India.

These differences occurred due to different measures used by them. Again figure also represent how strict or Liberal parameters were used in figuring out poverty.

Recently, estimation of GDP growth rate of India for the first quarter of 2010-11 i.e. April – June 2010 was published. According to the data, real GDP growth at factor cost is estimated at 8.8% while it was indicated at 3.65% at market price. However within a day government has raised the economic growth at market price to 10.02% from 3.65% stated earlier.

Many statistical institutions provide their data of GDP growth and they are varying to some extent. But we can say that for the purpose of GDP growth RBI data shows more ground reality because it has to come out with liquidity and monetary measures. Similarly, Planning Commission’s data on poverty can be relied upon.

Q. 2 Answer any TWO of the following in about 150 words each : 12 × 2 = 24

(a) Dalhousie’s predecessors had acted on the general principles of avoiding annexations, if these could be avoided. Dalhousie acted on the principles of annexation, if he could do so legitimately. His annexations were both of war and peace.” Analyse.

Important Points for Answer:

Predecessors Policies

Dalhousie – his policy

Annexations by Dalhousie

Answer: Before the policy of “Subsidiary Alliance” by the Wellesley, the British was concentrated mainly on the gains and resources in India. Cornwallis, the predecessor of Wellesley, wanted to gain the anger of Indian major powers.

The “Subsidiary alliance” system was used by Wellesley to bring the Indian states within the orbit of the British political power. The system played a very important role in the expansion of the company’s dominions.

This policy was accepted by Nizam of Hyderabad, the ruler of Mysore, Raja of Tanjore, the Nawab of Awadh, the Peshwa, Scindia, etc.

During Dalhousie’s period, the annexation policy was more aggressive. He acted very firmly from the beginning to extend the British rule as much as possible in India. He implemented the policy named “Doctrine of Lapse”.

According to the doctrine, any princely state or territory under the direct influence of the British East India Company, as a vassal state under the British Subsidiary System would automatically be annexed if the ruler was either “manifestly incompetent or died without in a direct – heir”.

By using this policy they look over the princely states of Satara (1848), Jaipur and Sambalpur (1849), Nagpur and Jhansi (1854). Dalhousie also annexed Punjab, Burma and Sikkim by direct wars.

Thus, predecessors of Dalhousie were more peaceful in their policy while Dalhousie became more aggressive in expansion of British Raj in India.

(b) With respect to Cooperative Societies what are the salient features of the 106th and 111th Constitutional Amendment Bills as at present?

Important Points for Answer:

106th Amendment

111th Amendment

Their main provisions

Answer: The Constitution (106th Amendment) Bill proposed to insert a new part IX B in the Constitution and adding Articles 243ZH through 243ZT providing for incorporation, regulation and winding up of co-operative societies.

1.    The bill specified maximum number of Board members and the tenure of the members.

2.    The bill also specified for elections to be held before the expiry of the term of the Board.

3.    The bill specified that the Board of a co-operative society that has government shareholding or loans can be superseded for the maximum period of six months.

The Constitution (One Hundred and Eleventh Amendment) Bill, 2009 was introduced in the Lok Sabha on November 30, 2009.

Background:

The Bill adds a new Directive Principles of State Policy stating that the “State shall endeavour to promote voluntary formation, autonomous functioning, democratic control and professional management of co-operative societies.”

It further inserts a new part IX B in the Constitution (adding Articles 243ZH through 243ZT), which outlines certain guidelines for running co – operative societies.

(c) “ Small – holder farms need to be strengthened to achieve national food security.” Do you agree with this assessment? Substantiate.

Important Points for Answer:

Small Holdings         

Measures needed

Importance in agriculture

Answer:The National Food Security Bill – 2010 has been passed in the parliament with the object to ensure the food security to every citizen in the country. For this purpose, we have to strengthen every aspect in the field of agriculture. Small holder farmers are those who own or cultivate less than 2.0 hectares of land in the marginal and submarginal farm households.

According to agricultural census of 1990-91, 33% of the total cultivated land in India is small farms and it contributes 41% of the National grain production. Besides these, the families of the small holder’s constitute more than half of the national population.

Strengthening of small holder farms is important for two reasons :

   (i)        For their high contribution in agricultural output due to high levels of productivity as compared to large farms.

   (ii)       For its role in alleviating poverty across the nation, as majority of the poor still depend on it for their life.

The Government should be committed to implement various schemes and provide and educate the agricultural people about new technologies, encourage them to use various hybrid and high yielding immune seeds to increase the production and to facilitate for the effective market management to sell their products.

Q. 3 Answer any TWO of the following in about 150 words each:  12 × 2 = 24

(a) Comment on the spatial components in urban solid waste management in the country.

Important Points for Answer:

Rules           

Responsibility & Authority

Applicability

Answer: The Municipal Solid Wastes (Management and Handling) Rules, 2000.

Applicability:- Apply to all municipal authorities responsible for collection, segregation, storage, transportation processing and disposal of municipal solid wastes.

Responsibility of Municipal Authority:

   1.       Every municipal authority shall, within the territorial area of the municipality, be responsible for the implementation of the provisions of these rules, and for any infrastructure development for collection, storage, segregation, transportation, processing and disposal of municipal solid wastes.

   2.       The municipal authority or an operator of a facility shall make an application for grant of authorisation for setting up waste processing and disposal facility including landfills from the State Board or the Committee in order to comply with the implementation programme.

   3.       The municipal authority shall furnish its annual report.

         (a)      to the Secretary-in-charge of the Department of Urban Development of the concerned State or as the case may be of the Union Territory, in case of a metropolitan city; or

         (b)      to the District Magistrate or the Deputy Commissioner concerned in case of all other town and cities, with a copy to the State Board or the Committee on or before the 30th day of June every year.

(b) Assess the contributions made by the Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR) in agricultural development.

Important Points for Answer:

ICAR

Its Contribution

Answer: The Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR) is the apex body for co-ordinating, guiding and managing research and education in agriculture including horticulture, fisheries and animal sciences in the entire country. With 97 ICAR institutes and 45 agricultural universities spread across the country this is one of the largest national agricultural systems in the world.

The ICAR has played a pioneering role in ushering Green Revolution and subsequent developments in agriculture in India through its research and technology development that has enabled the country to increase the production of foodgrains by 4 times, horticultural crops by 6 times, fish by 9 times (marine 5 times and inland 17 times), milk 6 times and eggs 27 times since 1950-51, thus making a visible impact on the national food and nutritional security.

It has played a major role in promoting excellence in higher education in agriculture. It is engaged in cutting edge areas of science and technology development and its scientists are internationally acknowledged in their fields.

(c) List the significant local storms of the hot-weather season in the country and bring out their socio-economic impact.

Important Points for Answer:

Conditions   

Local storms

Their impact

Complexity

Answer: From March to May the ‘belt of great heat’ changes from south to north, due to the seeming northward motion of the sun. Deccan Plateau records the highest day temperatures in March. They are approximately around 38 °C. In April, the heat belt travels further north towards Gujarat and Madhya Pradesh, where they roughly record around 42 °C to 43 °C. In May, the heat belt moves further north. In the north-western part of the country temperatures close to 48 °C are not exceptional.

In the centre of the low pressure trough in the north-west, dry and hot winds blow during the afternoon and frequently they remain even up till midnight. These hot and dry day winds are locally known as ‘loo’.

At times, the moisture – laden winds are drawn towards the fringe of the trough. An abrupt contact between dry and moist air-masses gives rise to local storms of immense strength. These local storms are connected with brutal winds, uncontrolled downpour and even hail storms.

Towards the closing of summer, pre – monsoon showers are a frequent occurrence in Kerala and coastal areas of Karnataka. Locally they are known as ‘mango’ showers, because they aid in the early ripening of mangoes. Entry of pre-monsoon showers and early advancement of monsoons further north, is arrested by a belt of comparatively high air pressure, lying over the Deccan plateau.

The horrendous north-westerly and northerly winds in Bengal and Assam also cause very precipitate downpours. They are fundamentally evening thunder storms. Their unfavoured nature can be understood from the local terminology of ‘Kalbaisakhi’-‘calamity of the month of Baisakh’.

Q. 4 Answer any TWO of the following in about 150 words each:  2 × 2 = 24

(a) What are the grounds of disqualification of a Member of Parliament from either House? Quote relevant provisions in your answer.

Important Points for Answer:

Grounds provided in :

Article -102,

Anti-Defection Law,

Representation of Peoples Act

Answer: Article 102: Disqualifications for membership

   (1)       A person shall be disqualified for being chosen as, and for being, a member of either House of Parliament

         (a)       if he holds any office of profit under the Government of India or the Government of any State, other than an office declared by Parliament by law not to disqualify its holder;

         (b)       if he is of unsound mind and stands so declared by a competent court;

         (c)       if he is an undischarged insolvent;

         (d)       if he is not a citizen of India, or has voluntarily acquired the citizenship of a foreign State, or is under any acknowledgement of allegiance or adherence to a foreign State;

         (e)       if he is so disqualified by or under any law made by Parliament Explanation; for the purposes of this clause a person shall not be deemed to hold an office of profit under the Government of India or the Government of any State by reason only that he is a Minister either for the Union or for such State.

   (2)       A person shall be disqualified for being a member of either House of Parliament if he is so disqualified under the Tenth Schedule

The grounds for disqualification under the Anti-Defection Law (Tenth Schedule)

   (a)       If an elected member voluntarily gives up his membership of a political party;

   (b)       If he votes or abstains from voting in such House contrary to any direction issued by his political party or anyone authorised to do so, without obtaining prior permission.

Disqualifications for membership of Parliament under provisions of The Representation of People Act 1951:

Disqualification on conviction for certain offences.

Disqualification on ground of corrupt practices.

Disqualification for dismissal for corruption or disloyalty.

Disqualification for Government contracts, etc.

Disqualification for office under Government company.

Disqualification for failure to lodge account of election expenses.

(b) Distinguish between the objectives, structure and functioning of the ‘Kendriya Vidyalaya Sangathan’ and the ‘Navodaya Vidyalaya Samiti’

Important Points for Answer:

Objectives

Distinctions

Answer: Kendriya Vidyalaya is a system of central government schools under the Ministry of Human Resource Development.

The system came into being in 1965 under the name “Central Schools” and has been affiliated with CBSE since then. Later, the name was changed to Kendriya Vidyalaya.

Objectives of Kendriya Vidyalaya Sangathan:

   1.       To cater to the educational needs of children of transferable Central Government including Defence and’ Para-military personnel by providing a common programme of education;

   2.       To pursue excellence and set the pace in the field of school education;

   3.       To initiate and promote experimentation and innovations in education in collaboration with other bodies like the Central Board of Secondary Education (CBSE) and the National Council of Educational Research and Training (NCERT) etc. and

   4.       To develop the spirit of national integration and create a sense of “Indianness” among children.

Navodaya Vidyalaya Samiti is an autonomous organisation under the Ministry of Human Resource Development, Department of Secondary & Higher Education, Govt. of India. The Chairman of the Samiti is the Hon’ble Minister of Human Resource Development.

First established in 1985 at Amravati, Maharashtra. They started with the name Navodaya Vidyalayas and renamed later as Jawahar Navodaya Vidyalayas in the birth-centenary year of Pandit Jawahar Lal Nehru.

Navodaya Vidyalayas are affiliated to Central Board of Secondary Education (CBSE).

Objectives of Navodaya Vidyalaya Samiti

to provide good quality modern education to the talented children predominantly from the rural areas, without regard to their family’s socio-economic condition.

to ensure that all students of Jawahar Navodaya Vidyalayas attain a reasonable level of competence in three languages as envisaged in the Three Language Formula.

to serve, in each district, as focal points for improvements in quality of school education in general through sharing of experiences and facilities.

(c) Bring out the salient features of the evolution and the current status of the ‘Bharat Stage’ vehicle emission norms in the country.

Important Points for Answer:

Emission Regulations

Evolution in India

Fuel Policy

Answer: The first Indian emission regulations were idle emission limits which became effective in 1989.

Since the year 2000, India started adopting European emission and fuel regulations for four – wheeled light – duty and for heavy – duty. Indian own emission regulations still apply to two – and three – wheeled vehicles.

On October 6, 2003, the National Auto Fuel Policy has been announced, which envisages a phased program for introducing Euro 2-4 emission and fuel regulations by 2010.

These standards apply to all new 4 – wheel vehicles sold and registered in the respective regions. In addition, the National Auto Fuel Policy introduces certain emission requirements for interstate buses with routes originating or terminating in Delhi or the other 10 cities.

For 2 – and 3 – wheelers, Bharat Stage II (Euro 2) will be applicable from April 1, 2005 and Stage III (Euro 3) standards would come in force preferably from April 1, 2008, but not later than April 1, 2010.

Q. 5 Write brief but precise notes on any SIX of the following. Your answer should not exceed 50 words in each case.5 × 6 = 30

(a) Transhumance in India

(b) Frontogenesis and Frontolysis

(c) Golden Revolution

(d) Sea-floor spreading

(e) Legislative powers assigned to the Rajya Sabha under Art. 249 and Art. 312 of the Constitution

(f) Causes for dominant dendritic pattern of drainage in the Gangetic plains

(g) “ Break-of-bulk” towns

Answer: (a) Transhumance means seasonal movement of people along with their livestock. They move for livelihood purpose, generally over a short distance.

Siwalik, Ladakh and Nilgiris still follow the practice. It supports pasture needs.

They may also undertake Zhoom cultivation as an occupation. They collect forest products and sell them. Now transhumance is declining.

(b) Both terms refer to atmospheric conditions created by front.

Frontogenesis, in meteorology, refers to the formation or strengthening of an atmospheric front. During frontogenesis, the temperature gradient tightens and as a result the thermal wind becomes imbalanced.

Frontolysis – in meteorology, is the dissipation or weakening of an atmospheric front.

(c) Golden Revolution is related to increased production of fruits and vegetables. Share of horticulture in GDP of agriculture is now more than 30 % in India.

Research and promotion of this sector has increased income of farmers. It promises a potential to increase per-capita income of farmers in rural areas. It can also be promoted in environmental friendly manner.

(d) Seafloor spreading is a process that occurs at mid-ocean ridges, where new oceanic crust is formed through volcanic activity and then gradually moves away from the ridge.

Seafloor spreading helps explain continental drift in the theory of plate tectonics.

Sea floor spreading, if it continues to the point that the continent is completely severed, then a new ocean basin is created.

(e) Under Article 249 Rajya Sabha can empower Parliament to enact a law on any matter of state list. It has to pass a resolution that such enactment is necessary in national interest.

Under Article 312 Rajya Sabha has power to create a new category of All India Service by a resolution.

(f) Almost all river channel of Gangetic plain follow the slope of terrain i.e. west to east. This is one reason for dendritic pattern of drainage.

Monotonous character of the vast alluvial plain help river to easily make its course in the direction of the slope. This is another reason for the same.

(g) Break of bulk town is a place where goods are unloaded, i.e. ports. Town situated in middle of hills may also act as a break of bulk town due to their location, i.e. Dehradun.

Similarly, cargo ports are break of bulk towns. The port may handle any particular type of cargo or various cargo – types. Bharuch in Gujarat was a break of bulk town in ancient India.

Q. 6 Answer any THREE of the following in about 150 words each:        12 × 3 = 36

(a) While bringing out their salient features, distinguish between either ‘Madhubani’ Art and ‘Manjusha’ Art or ‘Rajasthani’ schools of painting and the ‘Pahari’ school of Painting.

Important Points for Answer:

Salient Features of all forms of schools

Answer: Madhubai Art: The art of painting initially practised in Mithila region of Bihar state. It is antique art of painting. It is said that this art originated at the time of king Janak.

Traditionally done by women of villages around present town of Madhubani. Initially it was done on plastered mud wall of huts. But now also done on clothes and handmade papers and canvass. Colours are derived from plants, themes generally revolves around hindu deities, natural object and Tulsi.

Manjusha Art or Angika Art: Traditional and indegenous art form of Bihar, used in Bihar Vishnavi Puja, usually referred as a snake printings only left part of the painting is painted.

Pink, yellow and green colours are used. Human being depicted in the form of english letter X.

Rajasthani Schools of Painting: It developed in 15th century. Also called as Rajput or Hindu school of painting.

In the beginning, the style was inspired by religion, mostly Hindu Vaishnav religion. In later stage, paintings were done on romance and great folk themes. Bright colours were used. Faminian beauty like lotus eyes, waving hairs, thin waist rounded and long fingers and graced is portrayed.

Main schools of this art: Mewar school, Kishangarh school, Bikaner school, Bundi school, Jaipur school.

Pahari School of Painting: It developed and flourished during 17th to 19th century in the foothill of Punjab, Himachal Pradesh, Jammu and Garhwal.

Painters are great lover of nature and depicts nature with care. Its main centeres are Basholi, Kangra and Gular.

In Basholi portration of simplified forms of trees and faces is used with bold lines and brilliant colors.

In Gular, women in the absence of their love is depicted.

Kangra rather advanced includes towns, cluster of houses in the distance.

This art dwelt largely on the themes and symbols from literature and mythology.

Main schools are Kangra and Dagra.

(b) Bring out the powers and responsibilities attached to the office of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha.

Important Points for Answer:

Position

Power / Function

Answer: The Speaker is the presiding officer of the lower house of Parliament of India.

His/her role is similar to that of Speakers elsewhere in other countries that use the Westminster system of government.

The Speaker presides over the sessions of the Lok Sabha and conducts the business in the house.

He/she decides whether a bill is a money bill or a non money bill.

He/she maintains discipline and decorum in the house and can punish a member for their unruly behaviour by suspending them.

He/she permits the moving of various kinds of motions and resolutions like the motion of no confidence, motion of adjournment, motion of censure and calling attention notice as per the rules.

The Speaker decides on the agenda to be taken up for discussion during the meeting. The date of election of speaker is fixed by the President.

(c) Distinguish between the following four literary awards:

   (i)       Jnanpith Award     (ii) Sahitya Akademi Award

   (iii)     Vyas Samman         (iv) Saraswati Summan

Important Points for Answer:

Four Awards

Foundation and other criteria

Answer: The Jnanpith Award is the highest literary award in India. It is presented by the Bharatiya Jnanpith, a trust founded by the Sahu Jain family, the publishers of The Times of India newspaper.

Sahitya Akademi Award is a literary honour in India which Sahitya Akademi, India’s National Academy of Letters, annually confers on writers of outstanding works in one of the twenty – four major Indian languages.

The Vyas Samman is a literary award in India, first awarded in 1991. It is awarded annually by the K.K. Birla Foundation and includes a cash payout of Rs 2.5 lakh (as of 2005).

To be eligible for the award, the literary work must be in the Hindi language and have been published in the past 10 years.

The Saraswati Samman is an annual award for outstanding prose or poetry literary works in any Indian language. It is named after an Indian goddess of learning and is considered to be among the highest literary awards in India. It includes a monetary award of Rs five lakh (as of 2006). The Saraswati Samman was instituted in 1991 by the K. K. Birla Foundation.

(d) After the September 1st changes, do you think that Unit Linked Insurance Plans (ULIPs) and Mutual Funds (MFs) are on a level playing field? Substantiate your answer from the perspective of an ordinary investor.

Important Points for Answer:

ULIP           

MF

Difference    

Problem

Recent decision

Answer: Investment in ULIPS or MFs result to the turf war between IRDA and SEBI. ULIPs are Unit Linked Insurance Plans and MFs are Mutual Funds or purely invested in equity.

ULIPs are combination of insurance and investment.

In ULIPs, less than 5% of the premium for insurance and other used for buying equity, making it more or less a conventional MF. Since MF money is equity investment, so lot of regulatory structures were built into it. This provided for a natural inclination of financial regulatory arbitrage to favour ULIPs over MFs.

Preference to ULIPs affected MFs market. Ordinary investors in the name of insurance cover was getting into uninformed investment territory of equity market.

So there was a lot of churning in the MF domain. And this was being missold to a

symmetrically interested investor on the pretext of handsome return as this lead to a regulatory dispute between IRDA and SEBI. Post to the 1st September decision, the scenario was become clear.

Now lock – in period for all ULIPs has been increased from 3 yrs to 5 yrs making them long term financial instrument which basically provide risk protection.

Now IRDA has been restored with the regulatory position of ULIPs, thus clarifying to the market that it is insurance product where maximum portion of the premium should be allocated to the insurance coverage, this has reduced the regulatory arbitrage between both these products thus giving them level playing field.

Q. 7 Answer any FIVE of the following in about 150 words each: 12 × 5 = 60

(a) What do you understand by ‘repo rate’ and ‘reverse repo rate’? What are theimplications in raising these rates?

Important Points for Answer:

Repo rate     

Reverse repo rate

Effect of raise           

Use by RBI

Answer: When banks have any shortage of funds, they can borrow it from Reserve Bank of India or from other banks. The rate at which the RBI lends money to commercial banks is called repo rate, a short term for repurchase agreement. A reduction in the repo rate will help banks to get money at a cheaper rate. When the repo rate increases borrowing from RBI becomes more expensive.

Reverse Repo rate is the rate at which Reserve Bank of India (RBI) borrows money from banks. Banks are always happy to lend money to RBI since their money is in safe hands with a good interest. An increase in Reverse repo rate can cause the banks to transfer more funds to RBI due to these attractive interest rates. It can cause the money to be drawn out of the banking system.

Due to this fine tuning of RBI using its tools of CRR, Bank Rate, Repo Rate and Reverse Repo rate our banks adjust their lending or investment rates for common man.

(b) “Cost – benefit analysis should not be the sole consideration, while deciding to host events like the Commonwealth Games.” Critically comment on this perspective.

Important Points for Answer:

Important of Games

Its measurements – Monetary, others

Measures of analysis

Answer: Hosting games like Commonwealth, Olympics or Asian games leads to invest lot of money in infrastructure. States run facilities which will provide great base to the states. It is one of imperative to analyse cost benefits but here cost benefit analysis is not just a monetary turn. Cost in a same includes investment in state run facility and in infrastructure, sports infrastructure which includes stadiums, training camps that also of international standards.

Consequently hosting big games leads to short term as well as long term benefits. In short term benefits it helps to inspect transport system, security measures and to fulfil loopholes if any.

Firstly sports helps in National Integration and spreads enthusiasm among citizens in different region and encouragement to the sportsman leading to great performance which promotes sports spirit in the country and securing respectable place among different countries of the world.

Hosting country is on a stage to show to the world, its economic and social developments which will lead to better relationship with other countries which helps to enforce to economic policy as well.

Government gets a chance to communicate its public diplomacy through tourist and foreign players which also leads to promote the tourism and cultural integration among different parts of the world.

When we analyse in this way we find hosting big games like commonwealth is very necessary to every country especially country like India which is emerging on international stage seeking a place in Security Council of UN. However this investment in country is necessarily needed to regulate through proper channel, otherwise it will lead to big scams and maladministration.

(c) List any eight ‘Ramsar’ wetland sites located in India. What is the ‘Montreux Record’ and what Indian sites are included in this Record?

Important Points for Answer:

Ramsar sites

Montreux record

Montreux sites

Answer: The list of Ramsar Sites in India comprises Indian wetlands deemed to be of “international importance” under the Ramsar Convention. 8 Ramsar wetland sites located in India are:

Ashtamudi Wetland, Kerala; Bhitarkanika Mangroves, Orissa; Bhoj Wetland, Madhya Pradesh; Chandertal Wetland, Himachal Pradesh; Chilika Lake, Orissa; Deepor Beel, Assam; East Calcutta Wetlands, West Bengal; Harike Lake, Punjab

The Montreux Record is a register of wetland sites on the List of Wetlands of International Importance where changes in ecological character have occurred, are occurring, or are likely to occur as a result of technological developments, pollution or other human interference. It is maintained as part of the Ramsar List.

Indian sites in the Montreux Record are Keoladeo National Park, Rajasthan; Loktak Lake, Manipur.

(d) Are the ‘Dedicated Freight Corridor’ railway project and the ’Golden Quadrilateral’ road project mutually complementary or competitive? Assess.

Important Points for Answer:

Dedicated Freight Corridor

Golden Quadrilateral

Analysis

Conclusion

Answer: Dedicated Freight Corridor is planned under 11th Five Year Plan. It will cover 2762 km route in two parts. One is the Eastern Corridor from Ludhiana to Dankuni and another is Western Corridor from Mumbai to Dadri. Both will interlink at Khurja.

Golden Quadrilateral is the largest highway project in India of 5846 km consisting of four or six lane express highways. The project is to join four mega cities on all four directions of India – Delhi, Mumbai, Kolkata and Chennai.

Both Road and Railway networks in India are already over – burdened by traffic. Recently Indian economic growth is poised to be around 8 to 10 percent for coming years. This will demand better infrastructure and transportation facility. Therefore, these projects will be helpful.

Again, the Dedicated Freight Corridor covers only east and west part, in North India. There is no such corridor in South India.

(e) “Upliftment of the neglected sections of society will be best served with many more centers of the Indira Gandhi National Tribal University.” Expand on the assertion made.

Important Points for Answer:

University

Benefits of more centres

Answer: The Indira Gandhi National Tribal Universityenvisages to provide higher education to tribals all over India. It has been established by an act of Parliament of India at Amarkantak, Madhya Pradesh. It is fully funded by the Central Government through University Grant Commission.

Tribals in India require special focus for their upliftment. Eventhough they are culturally very rich, they lack proper and higher education. Any effort to expose them to urban culture will be surely a failure for their development, tribal – based programmes have to be developed.

Recently the Tribal University has opened its first regional campus at Manipur in September 2009. Such more centres can provide them an opportunity to opt for higher education in their own area. They will contribute to higher studies and research. Tribal art, traditions, culture, language, medicinal system, forest based economical activities, advancement in technology etc. can be main focus apart from other curriculum.

(f) Comment on the salient features of the recent draft Model Real Estate (Regulation of Development) Act of the Ministry of Housing and Urban Poverty Alleviation of the Central Government.

Important Points for Answer:

Draft model

Key points

Answer:The Model Real Estate Act was announced by Ministry of Housing and Urban Poverty Alleviation.

Now it is arduous task for builders and developers to mislead the buyers using misleading details of the property or confusing them with Jargom terms.

This Act seeks to balance to disorganise the sector and transparency needed.

Key highlight of the Act:

No advertisement before registration with authority. Registration will ensure that project has obtained all sanctions.

Advertisement should be specific and clear, no misleading images.

Proper technology used, detailed specification of materials.

Clear information of extra charges.

Any individual can inspect any time any document related to the project.

Sale and purchase will be lodged in to an AIR thereby making income tax an obligation to ensure no illegitimate property or black money involved.

Certification to the agent.

The regulatory body make it sure that end product is same as the investor invested into initially.

The above mentioned improvements in the real estate sector are for sure going to give the segment a boost. It will add much to the relief of the buyers. It will ensure transparency and accountability.

Q. 8 Answer each of the following, briefly but precisely. Each answer should be less than 50 words.      5 × 6 = 30

(a) How is disagreement between the Legislative Council and the Legislative Assembly of a State in passing of an ordinary Bill, resolved?

(b) Comment on the recent HFC – 23 emissions controversy that includes in its ambit some Indian companies.

(c) Comment on the recommendations of the Wadhwa Commission on the Public Distribution System.

(d) What are the salient features of The National Oil Spill Disaster Contingency Plan?

(e) You arrive first at, the scene where a bus accident has just occurred. What emergency measures should you immediately and safely adopt?

(f) Bring out the sectoral and state – wise distribution patterns of Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) inflows into the country.

Answer: (a) Where any controversy arises between the houses of Parliament on passing a bill, the President, according to Article 108 of the Constitution, can Summon both the houses to meet in a joint sitting to resolve the controversy. Like that, there is no any constitutional provision to summon the joint sitting in the state legislature over any ordinary bill.

So, in case of disagreement between Legislative Council and Legislative Assembly over an ordinary bill, according to art. 197, the will of the Assembly prevails over that of the Council. The Council can only delay the bill. The power of the Legislative Council has been restricted under Art. 197 in case of bills other than money bills.

(b) Controversy is brewing over HFC 23 destruction in CDM. Many viewed HFC 23 destruction as a cheap money maker. HFC is a potentially dangerous greenhouse gas. It is used in diverse niche applications and it produced as a byproduct of HCFC 22. It is used in refrigerator, air conditioner and foam industries.

UNFCCC try to mitigate its emission as clean development mechanism project by which its emission reduced substantially because sale of CERs generating significant revenue streams. Member of UN panel decided to analyse the scheme as companies from countries like India and China are getting huge credits (around half of carbon credits only by using 1% CDM project methodology).

Indian companies are also reducing emission of HFC 23 by CDM to get carbon credit.

(c) To check maladies affecting the proper functioning of PDS, Supreme Court constituted the Wadhwa Committee by an order passed in a writ petition and also to suggest the remedial measures.

Committee submitted its report on 21 August 2007. The recommendations are as follows:

   (i)        Computerisation of PDS operations.

   (ii)       Identify the exact quantity of poor families living below poverty line to effect the profit to the real beneficiary. So that they can get their due entitlements at fixed price and quantity in a fixed period.

   (iii)      Distribution on minimum rate.

   (iv)      Food Security to increase nutrition especially in malnutrition areas.

   (v)       There should be zero tolerance approach as there are more leakages and maladministration.

   (vi)      System lacks transparency and accountability, also it needs enforcing strict monitory measures.

(d) A draft National Oil Spill Disaster Contingency Plan (NOS-DCP) was prepared on 14 Apr 1988 and forwarded to all concerned agencies for comments. Final draft was approved by the Committee of Secretaries on 04 Nov 1993.

Objectives: The objectives of the plan are

   (a)       To develop appropriate and-effective systems for the detection and reporting of spillage of oil.

   (b)       To ensure prompt response to prevent, control, and combat oil pollution.

   (c)       To ensure that adequate protection is provided to the public health and welfare, and the marine environment.

   (d)       To ensure that appropriate response techniques are employed to prevent, control, and combat oil pollution, and dispose off recovered material in an environmentally accepted manner.

   (e)       To ensure that complete and accurate records are maintained of all expenditure to facilitate cost of recovery.

(e) The measures to be taken immediately after the bus accident are:

   (i)        We should start the rescue work immediately and get the help of all those who are available there.

   (ii)       We should give the first aid to those who are in dangerous condition.

   (iii)      Inform the nearest ambulance or emergency care or hospital.

   iv)       Inform the police.

   (v)       We should take timing actions according to the situation and also coordinate the available resources to save the lives as early as possible.

(f) According to RBI, 35% of Mumbai region in 2000 – 2009, which comprising Maharashtra, Dadar Nagar Haveli and Daman & Diu. The Delhi region comprising UP, Haryana getting 15% cumulatively during the same period. Share of Gujarat, Karnataka, Tamil Nadu and Andhra Pradesh is 7%, 7%, 6%, 4% respectively.

Thus, more than 65% of total FDI inflow has been received by these states constituting 41% of the total population. BIMARU states having 40% of the population received as low as 0.67 % of total FDI. North east states received 0.1%. It is very low. Government is taking measures to project the North east states in the upcoming years.

Q. 9 Write brief notes on each of the following, in about 20 words each:          2 × 8 = 16

(a) Contributions of Latika Ghosh to the freedom struggle

(b) Bhai Maharaj Singh as a freedom fighter

(c) Chandrayaan – II

(d) Agni-V

(e) Babli Project

(f) ‘ Swavajamban’ Scheme

(g) National Investment Fund

(h) ‘Aerostat’balloon

Answer: (a) She was an Oxford scholar. She set up Mahila Rashtriya Sangha in 1928. She got 300 women in national movement.

(b) Bhai Maharaj Singh, the spiritual leader and Sikh nationalist, took up weapons against the British rule in 1847, he was imprisoned in Outram Jail Singapore where he died.

(c) Chandrayaan-2 is a joint lunar exploration mission proposed by the ISRO and the Russian Federal Space Agency (RKA) and has a projected cost Rs 425 crore, to be launched in 2013 by a GSLV.

(d) The Agni-V is a three stage solid fuel missile with range of about 6000 km. Agni-V will be able to carry multiple warheads and will have counter – measures against Anti- ballistic missile systems.

(e) The Babli project is a barrage being built by Maharashtra across the Godavari River in the Pochampad dam area. It created dispute between Maharashtra and Andhra Pradesh.

(f) Swawlamban (NORAD) Scheme is being implemented by the Department of Women and Child Development, Government of India with partial assistance from Norway since 1982.

(g) It was set up for ploughing of 75 per cent of its income—derived through the disinvestment proceeds of Central Public Sector Enterprises (CPSEs)—for funding social sector projects. The balance 25 per cent is to be utilised for the revival of the ailing PSEs.

(h) Aerostat helium gas Balloon was the star attraction in the Commonwealth Games, Delhi. It is a 70 Crore Rupees Balloon and largest in any games ever used.

Q. 10. Who are the following and why have been in the news recently? (Each answer should not exceed 20 words)2 × 8 = 16

(a) Divya Ajithkumar

(b) N.C. Saxena

(c) Islam A. Siddiqui

(d) Swarnalatha Cherukutty

(e) Nitin Nohria

(f) Deepak Mondal

(g) Gaurav Singh Saini

(h) Upendra Limaye

Answer: (a) A 21-year-old youngster from Chennai has written her name in a fresh page of Indian history by becoming the first woman to be conferred by the Army with the coveted ‘Sword of Honour’.

(b) In August 2010, a committee headed by him warned that plans by Vedanta Resources to mine on Dongria Kondh land in eastern India threaten the survival of the tribe. This lead to the Indian government refusing clearance to the project.

(c) An Indian American has been appointed as the chief agriculture negotiator of the United States, who would carry out all critical negotiations for the country in the crucial Doha round and other bilateral discussions.

(d) South Indian film playback singer Swarnalatha passed away. She was 37. She won the National Film Award for Best Female Playback Singer.

(e) Nitin Nohria became the tenth dean of Harvard Business School on 1 July 2010. He previously served as co-chair of the Leadership Initiative, Senior Associate Dean of Faculty Development, and Head of the Organisational Behavior unit.

(f) Deepak Mondal received the Arjuna Award in 2010. He became the first footballer in eight years to receive the award.

(g) Thirteen-year-old Gaurav Singh Saini of Haryana has been given the Bharat award for saving more than 60 lives in a stampede at the Naina Devi temple.

(h) Upendra Limaye bagged the best male actor award at the 56th National Film Awards for 2008. Limaye bagged the top honour for the Marathi feature film Jogva.

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