Time Allowed: Three Hours       Maximum Marks: 300

Candidates should attempt ALL questions strictly in accordance with the instructions given under each question. The number of marks carried by each question is indicated at the end of the question.

Q. 1 Answer any three of the following in about 250 words each:           20 × 3 = 60

(a) ‘Essentially all that is contained in Part IV – A of the Constitution is just a codification of tasks integral to the Indian way of life.’ Critically examine this statement.

Important Points for Answer:

• Part IV A of the constitution

• Legal effect

  • Repository of Indian social values

Answer: The fundamental duties of citizens were added by the 42nd Amendment Act in 1976 on the recommendation of Swaran Singh Committee. The ten fundamental duties which were given in Article 51A of the Constitution can be classified as either duties towards Self, duties concerning the Environment, duties towards the State and duties towards the Nation.

This was inserted into the Constitution to make the fundamental rights more meaningful. In fact, there can be no rights in a society where there are no duties. Almost every religion emphasised the concept of duties and all the religion has imposed several moral duties on its followers. Failure to perform such duties resulted in sin for which there was punishment in another world.

The Hindu jurisprudence has emphasised the concept of duty in the form of command of the god. Everyone has to perform the religious duties in his life time as per the law of the religion.

The Fundamental Duties are not enforceable in court of law. But now this trend has been changing by various judicial decisions of the Supreme Court. Though they are not enforceable but they can be used while interpreting the fundamental rights and directive principles of state policy for the welfare of the state and people.

They lack judicial effect but their constitutional and moral impact is effective in inspiring some legislative actions. Therefore, they are truly codification integral to the Indian way of life, but effective and inspiring codification.

(b) ‘The exercise of executive clemency is not a privilege but is based on several principles, and discretion has to be exercised in public considerations.’ Analyse this statement in the context of the judicial powers of the President of India.

Important Points for Answer:

• Power to Pardon (Clemency)          

•How to use the Power

• Discretionary ?      

•Guiding Principles

• Judicial cases

Answer:In the popular Government as well as monarchies it is considered prudent to vest in the executive authority the power to ameliorate or avoid particular criminal judgements. Article 72 of the Constitution gives the President the power to grant pardons, reprieves, respite or remission of punishment and to suspend, remit or commute, the sentence of any person convicted of any offence. The power is available where:

The punishment is by a court Martial;

The punishment is for an offence against any law relating to a matter to which the executive power of the Union extends; and in all cases where a person is sentences to death.

This power like all other powers is exercised by the President on the advice of the Council of Ministers.

The object of conferring such power on the Constitutional Head is to keep the door open to correct judicial errors and to provide relief from undue harshness or evident mistake in the operation of law.

Judges are after all human beings and are likely to commit mistakes. In Kehar Singh case (Kehar Singh v. Union of India, A.I.R. 1989. S.C. 653), the Supreme Court examined the Presidential power to grant pardon and laid down following principles:

The petitioner who seeks pardon from the President has no right to an oral hearing by the President. There is no need for the Court to lay down specific guidelines for the exercise of power under Art. 72.

The power is to be exercised on the advice of the Central Government.

It is open to President to scrutinize the evidence on record and take a view different from the view taken by the court.

The exercise of the power by the President is not subject to judicial review.

The President is not bound to give reasons for his order.

Judicial review of the pardon

Judicial review of the order of the President or Governor under Art. 12 or Art. 161 is available on the following grounds:

   (a)       that the order has been passed without application of mind.

   (b)       that the order is mala fide.

   (c)       that the order is based on extraneous or wholly irrelevant considerations.

   (d)       that relevant material has been kept out of consideration.

   (e)       that the order suffers from arbitrariness.

A person was granted pardon on the ground that he was a “good congress worker” and implicated and false witnesses were produced. The court held that irrelevant and extraneous materials entered into the decision. The decision was vitiated. The order granting pardon was set aside ( Epuru Sudhankar v. Govt, of A.P., 2006).

(c) Discuss the extent, causes, and implications of the ‘nutrition transition’ said to be underway in India.

Important Points for Answer:

• What is Nutrition Transition


• Causes      


Answer:Increased consumption of unhealthy foods compounded with increased prevalence of overweight in middle-to-low-income countries is typically referred to as the “Nutrition Transition.” It occurs in conjunction to the Epidemiological Transition and has serious implications in terms of public health outcomes, risk factors, economic growth and international nutrition policy.

According to the World Health Organisation’s global database, India has a preschool childhood obesity prevalence of about 1%. Repeated episodes of malnutrition, followed by nutritional rehabilitation, are known to alter body composition and increase the risk of obesity.

Rapid quantitative changes in dietary intake in developing countries indicate an increase in per capita availability of food and are also accompanied by qualitative changes in the diet. Food balance data from the Food and Agriculture Organisation (FAO) of India show that higher – income groups consumed a diet with 32% of the energy from fat while the lower – income groups consumed only 17% energy from fat. More recent dietary surveys in Delhi also confirm that the upper income groups in urban India currently consume higher levels of energy from fat as compared with the urban poor or rural populations.

Dietary deficits and excesses—and the lifestyle changes that accompany industrialisation and urbanisation with economic development – make a significant contribution to this epidemic. In this brief overview some of the crucial contributors to the nutrition transition in India, are important determinants of the burgeoning problem in this country.

(e) Bring out the salient features of the PCPNDT Act, 1994, and the implications of its amendment in 2003.

Important Points for Answer:

  • PCPNDT Act, 1994  
  • Salient Features
  • Amendment in 2003  
  • Implications

Answer:The “Pre-conception and Pre – natal Diagnostic Techniques (prohibition of sex selection) Act 1994” is enacted with the object to increase the child sex ratio.

Since 1992, the child sex ratio has shown a considerable downward trend. In 2001, though the sex ratio showed an increase, but the child sex ratio declined to 927 (Census 2001). This decline was despite the enactment of PCPNDT Act, 1994 indicating the ineffectiveness and improper implementation.

The salient features of the PCPNDT Act, 1994 are :

   (i)        Regulation of parental diagnostic techniques (eg., amniocentesis and ultrasonography) for detection of genetic abnormalities, by restricting their use to registered institutions.

   (ii)       Prohibition of sex selection, before and after conception.

   (iii)      The Act allows the use of these techniques only at registered places for a specified purpose and by a qualified person, registered for this purpose.

   (iv)      Prevention of misuse of such techniques for sex selection before or after conception.

   (v)       Prohibition on sale of ultrasound machines to persons not registered under this Act.

   (vi)      Prohibition of advertisement of any technique for sex selection as well as sex determination.

   (vii)     Provides punishments for the violation of provisions of this Act.

In order to the ineffectiveness of the PCPNDT Act, the Government wanted to give more teeth to that Act and amended the Act with effect from 14th February, 2003. And renamed as “Pre-conception and Pre-natal Diagnostics Techniques (Prohibition of sex selection), Act, 1994”.

The 2003 Amendment made the Act more comprehensive and strong to fulfill the purpose of the Act, and to increase the child sex ratio and bring the gender equality in the society.

Q. 2 Answer ONE of the following in about 250 words : 20

(a) Trace the salient sequence of events in the popular revolt that took place in February 1946 in the then ‘Royal Indian Navy’ and bring out its significance in the freedom struggle. Do you agree with the view that the sailors who took part in this revolt were some of the unsung heroes of the freedom struggle ?

Important Points for Answer:

  • RIN Revolt   
  • Reasons
  • Effect – Significance 
  • Unsung heroes

Answer: After the Second World War, three officers of the Indian National Army (I.N.A.), General Shah Nawaz Khan, Colonel Prem Sahgal and Colonel Gurbaksh Singh Dhillon were put on trial at the Red Fort in Delhi for “waging war against the King Emperor”, i.e. the British sovereign personifying British rule. The three defendants were defended at the trial by Jawaharlal Nehru, Bhulabhai Desai and others. Outside that, the trials inspired protests and discontent among the Indian population, who came to view the defendants as revolutionaries who had fought for their country. In January 1946 British airmen stationed in India took part in the Royal Air Force Mutiny of 1946 largely over the speed of their demobilisation, but also in some cases issuing demands against being used to continue British Imperialism. The Viceroy at the time, Lord Wavell, noted that the actions of the British airmen inspired both the RIAF and RIN mutinies.

The mutiny was initiated by the ratings of the Royal Indian Navy on 18 February 1946. It was a reaction to the treatment meted out to ratings in general and the lack of service facilities in particular. On 16 January 1946, a contingent of 67 ratings of various branches arrived at Castle Barracks, Mint Road, in Fort Mumbai. This contingent had arrived from the basic training establishment, F1MIS Akbar, located at Thane, a suburb of Bombay, at 1600 in the evening. One of them Syed Maqsood Bokhari went to the officer on duty informed him about the galley (kitchen) staff of this arrival.

The sailors were that evening alleged to have been served sub-standard food. Only 17 ratings took the meal, the rest of the contingent went ashore to eat in an open act of defiance. It has since been said that such acts of neglect were fairly regular, and when reported to senior officers present practically evoked no response, which certainly was a factor in the buildup of discontent. The ratings of the communication branch in the shore establishment, HMIS Talwar, drawn from higher strata of society, harboured a high level of revulsion towards the authorities, hawing complained of neglect of their facilities fruitlessly.

It was the Royal Indian Navy revolt that sparked the great fire which led to freedom of India, therefore the contribution of soldiers is undoubtedly unique. It is disappointing that the heroes who took part in that revolt are forgotten in the pages of history and remain unsung.

(b) Evaluate the influence of the three important women’s organisations of the early twentieth century in India on the country’s society and politics. To what extent do you think were the social objectives of these organisations constrained by their political objectives ?

Important Points for Answer:

  • Women’s organisations        
  • Objectives

• Constrains

Answer:Women-only organisations like All India Women’s Conference (AIWC) and the National Federation of Indian Women (NFIW) emerged. Women were grappling with issues relating to the scope of women’s political participation, women’s franchise, communal awards, and leadership roles in political parties.

The All India Women’s Conference (AIWC) was founded in 1927 “as an organisation dedicated to upliftment and betterment of women and children”. As well as continuing its original mission, the AIWC has since diversified into various social and economic activities involving women. Today there are more than 100,000 members in over 500 branches. AIWC is recognised worldwide as a premier organisation working for women’s development and empowerment.

AIWC was registered in 1930 under the Societies Registration Act, XXI of 1860. (No. 558 of 1930) with the following main objectives :

To work for a society based on the principle of social justice, personal integrity and equal rights and opportunities for all.

To secure recognition of the inherent right of every human being to work and to achieve the essentials of life, which should not be determined by accident of birth or sex but by planned social distribution.

To support the claim of every citizen to the right to enjoy basic civil liberties.

To stand against all separatist tendencies and to promote greater national integration and unity.

To work actively for the general progress and welfare of women and children and to help women utilize to the fullest, one of the fundamental rights conferred on them by the Constitution of India.

To work for permanent international amity and world peace.

National Federation of Indian Women is the women’s wing of Communist Party of India. It was established in 1954 by several leaders including Aruna Asaf Ali.

The first women’s university, SNDT Women’s University, was founded on June 2,1916 by the social reformer Dhondo Keshav Karve with just five students.

Of these organisations, Naional Federation of Indian Women was purely or mostly a political organisation and had to achieve welfare of women through political progress. But SNDT University was founded with social objectives and concentrated on educational development of women and their rightful place in the society. But of course, AIWC was largely a political cum social women’s organisation whose social objectives were constrained by political ones.

Q. 3 Answer one of the following in about 250 words: 20

(a) Critically examine the design of the National Rural Livelihoods Mission (NRLM) scheme. Do you think it has a better chance of success than the Swarnajayanti Gram Swarojgar Yojana (SGSY) in achieving its objectives ?

Important Points for Answer:


• Comparison with SGSY

• Conclusion

Answer: The National Rural Livelihood Mission (NRLM) was announced in the Budget 2009-10 to replace the Swarna Jayanti Gram Swarojgar Yojana (SGSY). It is targeted to reduce the rural poverty by 2015 by redesigning the SGSY.

Though the NRLM promises a lot with regard to creation and strengthening of rural livelihoods, it does suffer some serious shortcomings, which if not addressed are likely to see it more in the same path as the IRDP, SGSY and other rural welfare programs. The criticisms are as follows :

   (i)        Its emphasis on SHG for providing livelihood. Over emphasis of NRLM on SHGs could lead exclusion (rather than inclusion) of rural low income people, who are not able to participate through SHGs. Hence, the NRLM focuses on the household as the primary target of the program.

   (ii)       The NRLM has been designed to treat the rural economy as one. But in reality, there are many segments exist in the low income peoples.

   (iii)      The NRLM also has another defect, it lacks serious attention to value added agriculture and rural MSMEs – which, as the experiences of many countries suggest, can play a major role in enabling and sustaining inclusive growth in rural areas.

   (iv)      The strategy of the NRLM is too broad and sweeping. The design is also too academic and top down with the minimal involvement of “next target group”. This was the reason for the failures of IRDP and SGSY—in fact, if these had not failed, we would not need an NRLM today.

On account of the above deficiencies in NRLM design, it is feared that it may also meet the same fate similar to SHSY.

Suggestions for effective implementation and design are :

   (i)        NRLM may focus on covering all the willing households under SHGs, irrespective of BPL/ APL status.

   (ii)       NRLM may have two – fold strategy for poverty alleviation and rural prosperity.

   (iii)      There should be a permanent implementation mechanism at the district and block level.

   (iv)      To get the desirable employment transformation and to take full advantage of booming secondary and tertiary sectors, under livelihood promotion, NRLM may promote small and medium enterprises in ‘services’ and ‘manufacturing’ sectors with SHG federations.

Generally, the social welfare schemes must be implemented with the people’s participation and in transparent manner. The implementing authority should reach the people.

(b) Highlight the structure, objectives and role of the Advertising Standards Council of India. In what way has the August 2006 government notification made it more effective ?

Important Points for Answer:

  • ASCI
  • Structure
  • Objectives   
  • Role

• 2006 Notification

Answer:ASCI is a self-regulatory voluntary organisation of the advertising industry. It was established in 1985 and is committed to the cause of self-regulation in advertising, ensuring the protection of the interest of consumers.

The ASCI was formed with the support of all four sectors connected with Advertising viz., Advertisers, Ad agencies, Media (including Broadcasters and the Press) and others like PR Agencies, Market research companies, etc.

Its main objective is to promote responsible advertising and thus enhancing the public’s confidence in advertising. The ASCI’s membership of the European Advertising Standards Alliance (EASA) ensures that it gets valuable advice, learning and even influence at the international level.

The ASCI seeks to regulate the content of advertising with the primary purpose of protecting consumer interest and also to ensure fairness in competition. It deals with complaints received from consumers and industry against advertisements which are considered as false, misleading, indecent, illegal, leading to unsafe practices or unfair competition, and is in contravention of the ASCI codes for self-regulation in advertising.

ASCI’s role has been acclaimed by various agencies including the Government. However, it lacked the forces of legal recognition. The Government of India taking note of this and in August 2006 vide a notification amended the caste. Television Networks Rules, 1994 to ensure that at least as far as TV commercials go, they abide by the ASCI Code. Hence, violation of ASCI’s codes is now violation of Government rules. ASCI thus aims to achieve the own over-reaching goal; to maintain and enhance the public’s confidence in advertising.

Q. 4 Comment on any FIVE of the following in about 150 words each: 12 × 5 = 60

(a) Salient recommendations of the RBI-appointed Damodaran committee on customer service in Banks.

Important Points for Answer:

  • Damodaran Committee         
  • Recommendations

Answer: The Damodaran Committee on customer service constituted by the RBI submitted its report in August 2011. The recommendations are :

   (i)        To include the customer service and grievance redressal as a mandatory parameter in the performance appraisal report of every employee.

   (ii)       It has recommended active involvement of the boards of banks to guarantee customer satisfaction.

   (iii)      It has suggested an agenda on the level of implementation of the Bank’s Code of Commitments to customers and an overview on the grievance redressal mechanism in the bank should be placed before the bank every quarter before the customer service committee.

   (iv)      Every bank should ensure that they have comprehensive policies for customer acceptance, cane and severance.

   (v)       Emphasising on ‘customer centricity’, it has recommended that bank boards should evolve human resources policies which will “recruit for attitude and train for skills”.

   (vi)      The Bench level customer committee meetings should be replaced with a meeting of customers of all banks of that area and is hold in the presence of representatives of banks at periodic interest.

(b) Deendayal Disabled Rehabilitation Scheme (DDRS).

Important Points for Answer:

  • DDRS         
  • Structure
  • Objectives

Answer: The Umbrella Central Sector scheme of the Ministry of Social Justice is called the “Scheme to promote voluntary action for persons with disabilities”. It was revised on 2003 and renamed as “Deendayal Disabled Rehabilitation Scheme (DDRS)”.

Under the Scheme, funds for the welfare of persons with disabilities are provided to the non-governmental organisations for projects like special schools for disabled, vocational training centres, half way homes, community based rehabilitation centres, early intervention centres for disabled and rehabilitation of leprosy cured persons, etc.

NGOs are being given assistance under DDRS for providing a wide range of services to children/persons with disability, e.g.,

   (i)        programmes for pre-school and early intervention

   (ii)       special education

   (iii)      vocational training and placement

   (iv)      community based rehabilitation

   (v)       manpower development

   (vi)      psycho – social rehabilitation of persons with mental illness

   (vii)     rehabilitation of leprosy-cured persons, etc.

The DDRS guidelines include model projects covering various services provided by voluntary agencies which can be supported through grant-in-aid. Model projects give the following details :

   (i)        objective, needs to be addressed, target group in terms of type of disability and age and minimum permissible number of beneficiaries

   (ii)       teacher-beneficiary ratio (for pre – schools and special schools)

   (iii)      number of trades and an illustrative list of trades (for vocational training)

   (iv)      maximum amount of recurring and non – recurring assistance admissible for a specified number of beneficiaries in the form of cost norms.

(c) Evolution of “Green Benches’ in our higher judiciary.

Important Points for Answer:

  • Green Benches         
  • Cases of concern

• Benefits

Answer: In several cases, the Supreme Court of India, has upheld that “The Right to Life” under Article 21 includes the “right to clean environment” also, and derived various doctrines to uphold the right to environment, such as, polluter’s pays principle, precautionary principles, sustainable development, etc.

The Supreme Court exercising its power under Article 142 of the Constitution created the Compensatory Afforestation Management and Planning Authority. Further, the Constitution of the Forest Commission by the Supreme Court, establishment of ‘Green Courts’ in various states and the pro-active role of the higher judiciary in environmental matters culminated in the enactment of National Green Tribunal Act of 2010, that proposes to efficiently and expeditiously dispose of cases relating to environmental protection.

For environmental governance in India, the Constitution of a “Green bench” of judiciary to adjudicate environmental matters will be further significant step towards improving the quality of environment when the India has been caught in tussle between developmental and sustainability issues.

Law Commission of India also recommended in its 186th report for the specialised Environmental Courts to strengthen and revitalise environmental governance in the country.

(d)Distinction between “Department Related Parliamentary Standing Committees’ and ‘Parliamentary Forums’.

Important Points for Answer:

  • Standing Committees
  • Distinctions

• Parliamentary Forums

Answer:To make the parliamentary activity more effective and to make the executive more accountable to the legislature, the beginning had been made in the Eighth Lok Sabha in 1989 by setting up 3 departmental related subject committees.

There are at present, 24 departmental related parliamentary standing committees. Each of these standing committees consists of not more than 45 members – 30 from Lok Sabha and 15 from Rajya Sabha. A minister is not eligible to be nominated to these committees. The term of member of these committees is one years. The functions of these committees include consideration of Demand for Grants, consideration of Annual Reports.

There are, at present, five parliamentary forums. The first one on water conservation was constituted in 2005. The parliamentary forums do not interfere with or encroach upon the jurisdiction of the concerned departmentally related standing committees.

Members are appointed by speaker of Lok Sabha and Chairman of Rajya Sabha, each forum consists of not more than 31 members out of which 21 from Lok Sabha and 10 from Rajya Sabha.

The new committee system was inaugurated by the then Vice – President and Chairman of Rajya Sabha Shri K. R. Narayanan in 1993. It is considered as historical landmark in the evolution of committee system in our Parliament.

(e)Benefits and potential drawbacks of ‘cash-transfers’ to ‘Below Poverty Line’ (BPL) households.

Important Points for Answer:

  • Cash-transfer scheme           
  • Benefits

• Drawbacks

Answer:The Government has announced the replacing of public distribution system through which subsidised food-grain is made available to people, with “direct cash subsidies”, where fixed amount will be transferred into the people’s bank accounts each month.

The Government made the first move towards this by announcing in the recent budget that fertilizer and kerosene will be replaced by cash transfers.

On the other hand, the Right to Food Campaign strongly feels that the PDS must not be dismantled, as it plays an important role in not only improving people’s access to food but also revitalising agriculture and promoting food production.

As per Arjun Sengupta Committee report:

   (i)        Nearly 77% of countries’ population live on less than 23.20 per day.

   (ii)       Almost half of the children are malnourished.

   (iii)      70% of women are anemic.

   (iv)      One third of adult have low body mass index.

Advantages: Cost efficient, choice, multiplier effect, avoids disincentive effect, power costs for recipients.

Disadvantages: Consumption/nutrition, less available from donors, disadvantages to women, more prone to diversion, anti social use.

(f) New initiatives during the 11th Five Year Plan in the National Programme for Control Blindness (NCPB).

Important Points for Answer:

  • NPCB         
  • New Initiatives in 11th FYP

Answer:The National Programme for Control of Blindness (NPCB) was launched in 1976 as a 100% centrally sponsored scheme with, the goal of reducing the prevalence of blindness from 1.4% to 0.3%. According to the Survey of 2001-02, prevalence of blindness was estimated at 1.1%.

The NPCB has planned to develop the eye care facilities in every district level and to develop human resources for providing eye care services to reduce the backlog of blindness through identification and treatment of blind.

The vision 2020- The Right to sight initiative programme also planned to reduce the blindness from 1.49% to 0.3%.

In the Eleventh Five Year Plan, the funding to this programme has been enhanced. It was pegged at Rs. 1200 million. Further, capacity building programmes has been launched under the plan. To streamline the efforts the programme has been subsumed under the NRHM in the Eleventh Five Year Plan.

Currently, nearly 20,000 donated eyes are collected each year in India. The lack of awareness is the main cause for this low performance. The NPCB is also working to increase the numbers by implementing various awareness programmes.

Q. 5 Examine any THREE of the following in about 150 words each:     12 × 3 = 36

(a) The impact of climate change on water resources in India.

Important Points for Answer:

• Climate change

• Impact on water resources in India

Answer: The impact of climate change on water resources in India is evident through erratic monsoon, more frequent floods and droughts, stronger cyclones and rivers changing their course frequently. The severity is also due to the prevailing more than 7000 km. of coastline.

The changing rainfall pattern has adversely affected ground water recharge, wetlands both coastal and terrestrial. Climate change has resulted in melting of Himalayan glaciers. It has the potential of making the Himalayan Rivers swell first and then turning them into seasonal rivers, threatening the source of freshwater. It can also lead to salt water intrusion and threatening aquaculture and coastal agriculture.

The impact has been severe also because India is still an agricultural country with its large population being dependant on weather related livelihood through agriculture, forestry, etc.

(b) Measures taken by the Indian government to combat piracy in the Indian Ocean.

Important Points for Answer:

• Piracy in Indian Ocean

• Indian Govt’s. Measures

Answer: Indian government has used INS Talwar to foil several bide by pirates near the Gulf of Aden. Indian government is coordinating the anti-piracy measures at the international level with China, European countries and with the Gulf countries.

Indian government has placed surveillance radars in countries like Maldives and Sri Lanka to secure the sea lanes in the Indian Ocean. It has signed agreements with Madagascar, Seychelles and Mauritius for anti-piracy measures. Government has also taken measures in strengthening the coastal security by equipping and reforming the coast guards. However, incidents like unmanned vessel drifting in the ocean and reaching the coast of Mumbai have highlighted the holes in our coastal security which needs to be plugged.

Supreme Court has recently asked the Central Government to formulate separate piracy law for trying the pirates and to take care of the compensation to the victim’s family. Currently, piracy is being dealt under the provision of Indian Penal Code.

(c) The significance of counter-urbanisation in the improvement of metropolitan cities in India.

Important Points for Answer:

• Counter-urbanisation

• Metropolitan cities

• Effect in improvement

Answer:Counter-urbanisation is a demographic and social process where people move from large urban areas into rural areas, thereby leapfrogging the rural urban fringe. It might mean daily commuting but could also require lifestyle changes and the increased use of ICT (home working or teleworking). It is the process of migration of people from major urban areas to smaller urban settlements and rural areas. Counter-urbanisation affects the layout of rural settlements. Modern housing estates locate of the edge of small settlements. Industrial units are sited on main roads leading into the settlement. Counter-urbanisation will reduce pressure on the metropolitan cities and its basic amenities like drinking water supply, sewage facilities, continuous supply of electricity, education facilities, etc. as people move out due to following :

   (i)        Increase in car ownership enabling their movement, growth in information technology (E-mail, faxes and video conferencing) meaning more people can work from home.

   (ii)       Urban areas are becoming increasing unpleasant place to live. This is the result of pollution, crime and traffic congestion.

   (iii)      More people tend to move when they retire.

   (iv)      Now business parks being developed on the edge of cities (on Greenfield sites) meaning people no longer have to travel to the city centre. People now prefer to live on the outskirts of the city where they work.

(d) Problems specific to the de-notified and nomadic tribes in India.

Important Points for Answer:

• De-notified and nomadic tribes

• Reasons and status

• Their problems

Answer:Post-independence the Criminal Tribe Act 1871 was replaced; and criminal tribe nomenclature was replaced with De-notified Tribe (DNTs) which is still considered derogatory. They have been discriminated; British government included some of the tribes like Gonds, Ho and Santhals under this categorisation as they had rebelled against the British Raj.

A major challenge in the intervention comes due to dispersed nature of the tribes and having a nomadic culture surviving on shifting cultivation. This results in health and educational services a challenging task to deliver. It also makes the implementation of nutritional initiative like addressing iodine deficiency a challenging task.

Preservation of their culture, script, practices also gets hampered due to the same reason.

Two different opinions arise with regard to the reservation for the DNTs to raise their social and economic conditions. One view supports providing reservation within existing group of SCs, STs and OBCs while the other view supports creation a new group for the reservation of DNTs.

Q 6 In the context of the freedom struggle, write short notes (not exceeding 50 words each) on the following:          5 × 3 = 15

(a) ‘Benoy-Badal-Dinesh’ martyrdom.

(b) Bharat Naujawan Sabha

(c) Babbar Akali’ movement.

Answer: (a) On December 1930, Benoy along with Dinesh Chandra Gupta and Badal Gupta, dressed in European costume, entered the Writers’ Building and shot dead Simpson, the Inspector General of Prisons, who was infamous for the brutal oppression on the prisoners. This inspired further revolutionary activities in Bengal. After Independence, Dalhousie Square was named B.B.D. Bagh—after Benoy-Badal-Dinesh.

(b) Bharat Naujawan Sabha was an association of Indian youths which was established at a convention held in April 1928 at the Jallianwala Bagh in Amritsar. The aims of the Sabha were to create a youth wing of peasants and workers with a view to usher in revolution in the country and overthrow the British rule. Bhagat Singh was its secretary and principle organiser.

(c) Babbar Akali Movement was a radical outgrowth of the Akali movement for the reform of Sikh places of worship during the early 1920’s. The latter, aiming to have the shrines released from the control of priests who had become lax and effete over the generations, was peaceful in its character and strategy. In the course of the prolonged campaign, Akalis true to their vows patiently suffered physical injury and violence at the hands of the priests as well as of government authority.

Q. 7 Comment on the following in NOT more than 50 words each:         5 × 6 = 30

(a) Phase – IV of the tiger monitoring programme in India.

(b) Why the Central Statistics Office has notified a new series of Consumer Price Index from this year?

(c) Composition and functions of the National Executive Committee of the National Disaster Management Authority.

(d) The Bihar Special Courts Act, 2009 and why it has been in the news recently?

(e) The Telecommunications Ministry’s proposed Spectrum Management Commission.

(f) The Community-Led Total Sanitation (CLTS) approach to sanitation.

Answer: (a) The Ministry of Environment and Forests initiated the phase – IV of the tiger monitoring programme. This will initiate intensive, annual monitoring of tigers at the tiger reserve level, across 41 protected areas in the country. According to Ministry, this marks an important milestone in the comprehensive tiger conservation strategy. Annual monitoring at the tiger reserve level will allow getting regular updates on the number and health of tiger populations across the country, and will strengthen the conservation efforts. Until now monitoring was done once in four years.

(b) The Central Statistical Office has notified a new series of consumer price index with 2010 as its base year, for rural and urban areas and for the nation as a whole. It will give a comprehensive picture of inflation at the national level for retail prices. Government also proposes to use it for giving dearness allowance for government employees in the Seventh Pay Commission.

(c) The National Executive Committee of the National Disaster Management Authority comprises the union home secretary as the chairperson, and the secretaries to the government of India in the Ministries/Departments of Agriculture, Atomic Energy, Defence, Drinking Water Supply, Environment and Forests, Finance (Expenditure), Health, Power, Rural Development, Science and Technology, Space, Telecommunication, Urban Development, Water Resources and the Chief of the Integrated Defence Staff of the Chiefs of Staff Committee as members.

(d) Bihar Special Court Act, 2009 provides that the property of corrupt persons can be attached even when the probe is under way, if the authorised officer concludes that the acquisition of the property was the result of the offence committed by the accused. Bihar implemented it and some officials came under this Act. Its constitutional validity was questioned in Supreme Court which refused to stay this Act.

(e) Spectrum Management Commission is a new entity to manage and regulate spectrum allocation. The commission will subsume wireless planning coordination wing of the department of telecom and will get wider powers including dispute settlement, pricing and regulation related to spectrum. While the DoT will continue to be the licensor, all issues pertaining to spectrum allocation will be brought under Spectrum Management Commission.

(f) Community Led Total Sanitation (CLTS) : CLTS is an innovative methodology for mobilising communities to completely eliminate open defection (OD). Communities facilities are to conduct their own appraisal and analysis of open defecation and take their own action to become ODF (open defecation free). CLTS focuses on the behavioural change needed to ensure real and sustainable improvement. It invests in community mobilisation instead of hardware, and shifting the focus from toilet construction for individual households to the creation of open defecation free villages.

Q. 8 Attempt the following in not more than 50 words each:       5 × 4 = 20

(a) Distinguish either between the ‘Moatsu’ and ‘Yemshe’ festivals of Nagaland or the ‘Losar’ and ‘Khan’ festivals of Arunachal Pradesh.

(b) Write a sentence each on any five of the following traditional theatre forms :

(i) Bhand Pather   

(ii) Swang     

(iii) Maach

(iv) Bhaona     

(v) Mudiyettu    

(vi) Dashavatar

(c) What are the major different styles of unglazed pottery making in India?

(d) List the classical dance forms of India as per the Sangeet Natak Akademi.

Answer: (a) Moatsu festival : It’s an annual event celebrated in the month of May, by the Ao tribes of Nagaland. The festival is a time of gaiety and recreation after the hectic work of cleaning fields, burning jungles and sowing seeds. This work also includes cleaning up the wells and repair and construction of houses by elders. Major attractions of this festival is Sangpangtu; a fire is lit and men and women sit around it and the women serve meat and wine.

Yemshe festival : Festival celebrated in the month of October by Pochury tribe in Nagaland to commemorate the arrival of the new harvest season. It is a festival that strengthens relationships. The newly wedded couples share their food and eat together, during the festival the unmarried boys and girls look for a match for themselves.

Losar festival: Losar is the new year festival celebrated by Monpas (who forms the major portion) in Tawang, Arunachal Pradesh. They enjoy the festival with friends and family. Festival falls in the end of February or early March, for about 8 to 15 days.

Khan festival : Khan is a festival celebrated by the Mill tribe of Arunachal Pradesh. It brings together people from every background irrespective of their caste and creed. The priest ties a piece of wool in the neck of all the participants. This thread is considered to be sacred because they are prepared specially by the priest for the welfare of the whole community.

(b) (i) Bhand Pather is a social drama incorporating mythological legends and contemporary social satire of Kashmir.

   (ii)       Swang is a popular folk dance drama or folk theatre form in Rajasthan, Haryana, Uttar Pradesh and Malwa region of Madhya Pradesh.

   (iii)      Maach is originally a Rajasthan folk theatre that survives in the villages of Madhya Pradesh. The Maach of M.P. is a folk theatre form presented largely through song and dances. Men portray all the characters and the themes are generally historical. There is not much of acting.

   (iv)      Bhaona is a dance drama popular in the state of Assam, Sankardeva who was scholar and social reformer, was the father of Bhaona.

   (v)       Mudiyettu is ritualistic dance drama performed after the harvest of summer crops in Kerala, in 2010, Mudiyattu was included in UNESCO Intangible Cultural Heritage List.

   (vi)      Dashavatar refers to the ten most famous incarnations of Vishnu or sometimes Krishna.

(c) Different styles of unglazed pottery making in India: It is the oldest form of pottery practiced in India, which has developed with time, there are basically three types of unglazed pottery :

   (i)        Paper thin pottery, wherein biscuit coloured pottery is decorated with incised patterns.

   (ii)       Scrafito technique, wherein the pot is polished and painted with red and white slips along with intricate patterns, while the outline is incised.

   (iii)      Highly polished pottery, which is given strong, deeply incised, stylized patterns of arabesques.

Unglazed pottery is practiced throughout the country, with each region having its own speciality. Black pottery is yet another form of unglazed pottery, which resembles the Harappan pottery style.

(d) The Sangeet Natak Akademi currently confers classical status to eight Indian dance forms. They are as follows :

   1.       Bharatnatyam – Tamil classical dance.

   2.       Odissi – Odisha classical dance.

   3.       Kuchipudi – Andhra Pradesh (Telugu) classical dance.

   4.       Mohiniattam – Kerala classical dance.

   5.       Sattriya – Assamese classical dance.

   6.       Kathkali – Malayalam classical dance.

   7.       Kathak – Northern Indian classical dance (Rajasthan, Punjab, Delhi, Uttar Pradesh).

   8.       Manipuri – Manipur classical dance.

Q. 9 Comment on the following in not more than 50 words each:          5 × 5 = 25

(a) Nisarga – Runa technology of BARC.

(b) The first – aid that you can safely administer to a person standing next to you at the bus – stop who suddenly faints.

(c) The Kaveri K -10 aero – engine

(d) Molecular Breast Imaging (MBI) technology.

(e) E-governance initiatives by the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC).

Answer: (a) Nisarga – Runa technology of BARC : It is a Kitchen Waste (Biodegradable) based Bio-Gas Plant. This plant can process biodegradable waste such as kitchen waste, paper, grass, gobar and dry leaves. It offers zero garbage and zero effluent and provides high quality, manure and methane gas. Weed free manure obtained from such waste has high nitrogen contents and acts as an excellent soil conditioner. This plant could be set up for eco-friendly disposal of wet waste generated in kitchens, canteens of big hospitals, hotels, factories, residential complexes and can avoid health hazards due to dump sites. The technology of biphasic bio-methanation has high potential of solving the solid waste management problems of the urban areas and provides organic manure and biogas as a fuel.

(b) Fainting occurs when the blood supply to the brain is momentarily inadequate, causing the person to lose consciousness. First check the person is breathing ? If he is breathing, restore blood flow to the brain by raising the person’s legs above heart level if possible. Loosen belts, collate or other constrictive clothing. To reduce the chance of fainting again, don’t get the person up too quickly. If the person doesn’t regain consciousness within one minute call to the local emergency number. Check the person’s airways to be sure it’s clear. Watch for vomiting. Check for signs of circulation (breathing, coughing or movement). If a person was injured in a fall associate with a faint, treat any bumps, bruises or cuts appropriately. Control bleeding with direct pressure.

(c) The Kaveri K -10 aero – engine : Kaveri K-10 engine is being developed to be used in the Light Combat Aircraft, Tejas. It is being developed in collaboration of French firm, Snecma. It will have less weight and more replicate thrust to meet the requirements of the Indian Army.

(d) Molecular Breast Imaging (MBI) technology : Breast cancer is a foremost health problem for women worldwide and it is growing in numbers, early detection is critical for improving breast cancer and survival rates. This technology is intended to improve early detection in women who are at high risk for developing breast cancer, or in women with dense breasts who are less likely to benefit from conventional mammography. This technology is a gamma camera dedicated for breast imaging based on accumulation of a radioactive tracer in hyper metabolic cancer cells. The innovation of the MBI technology is the use of imaging detectors, cadmium zinc telluride (CZT) to replace the standard Nal detectors routinely used for gamma cameras, in a dedicated breast device.

(e) E-governance initiatives by the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC): E-governance defined as, the employment of the internet and the world-wide-web for deliveringgovernments information and services to the citizens. UPSC has introduced the systemof online submission of applications for the competitive examinations it conducts. Good lead taken by the UPSC as it reduces the paper use, risk of postal delays, low risk ofrejection since online applications built in self-scrutinising features not allowing anapplicant to leave any column blank, one can view and take a printout of one’sapplication for future reference, one can apply hassle ‘free manner at the convenienceof sitting at home or cyber cafe, any time even during night, overall its a user friendly initiative taken by the UPSC.

Q. 10 Who are the following and why have they been in the news recently? (Each answer should not exceed 20 words). 2 × 7 = 14

(a) Lieutenant Navdeep Singh

(b) Rahim Fahimuddin Dagar

(c) Lobsang Sangay

(d) P. R. Sreejesh

(e) Nileema Mishra

(f) V. Tejeswini Bai

(g) Aishwarya Narkar

Answer: (a) Lieutenant Navdeep Singh lost his life in gun battle in J&K, while fighting terrorists during an anti-infiltration operation along LOC in Gurez section of Bandipora district of north-Kashmir in Kashmir valley. 26 year old officer, after doing his MBA, was commissioned in March into the Army Ordinance corps and was serving in the 15th Battalion of the Maratha Light Infantry. (

(b) Rahim Fahimuddin Dagar, the 19th generation khalifa of the musical lineage known as the Dagar Gharana, that kept alive the tradition of Dhrupad, died with illness. He was honoured with the Padma Bhushan in 2008 and Sangeet Natak Akademi Ratna Puraskar also.

(c) Lobsang Sangay, political successor to the Dalai Lama, was sworn in as Prime Minister of the Tibetan government in exile at a public ceremony in Dharamsltala.

(d) P. R. Sreejesh played a stellar role in India’s victory at the inaugural Asian Champions Trophy of Hockey. Sreejesh’s two saves in the tie—breaker led to India’s 4–2 win over Pakistan in the championship in Ordos in China. Sreejesh was given an official reception by Hockey Kerala at Thiruvananthapuram.

(e) Nileema Mishra, a woman leader to the poorest in Maharashtra, has been awarded Asia’s prestigious Ramon Magsaysay award for 2011. She along with US-trained Indian engineer Harish Hande (who revolutionized use of solar lights, one among the six people who have been awarded the same) had helped to harness technologies to empower their countrymen and created waves of progressive change across Asia.

(f) V. Tejeswini Bai, the first Karnataka women to be conferred with the Arjun Award in Kabaddi. She received the same from President Pratibha Patil on August 29th 2011. She also had been given the state’s Eklavya award in 2006. She represented India from 2006 to 2010 and captained Indian team for four years.

(g) Aishwarya Narkar, is a Marathi film actress and also performs in Hindi TV serials. She has received the National Film Award from the President of India.

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